2 bağımsız olayın ortak olasılığı sıfıra eşit olmamalı mı?


30

Eğer ortak olasılık 2 olayın kesişmesiyse, 2 bağımsız olayın ortak olasılığı hiç kesişmediğinden sıfır olmamalı mı? Kafam karıştı.


18
Belirli bir günde televizyonda izleyebilme ihtimalim 1/2. Belirli bir günde yağmur yağma olasılığı 1 / 2'dir. Bunlar bağımsız olaylar. Yağmurlu bir günde televizyon izlememin olasılığı nedir?
user1936752

3
@ user1936752 Açık söylemek gerekirse, örnek etkinlikleriniz çoğu insan için bağımsız değildir (örneğin, yağmur yağmadığında dışarıda vakit geçirmek için daha istekli olabilirler)
Hagen von Eitzen

@HagenvonEitzen Tamam, iyi nokta. Çikolatalı yemek için yağmurlu günü değiştirin .
Rui Barradas

2
@Gaston: "Bağımsız" kelimesini "birbirini dışlayan" ile karıştırmayın. Bağımsız olaylar birbirleriyle tamamen ilişkili değildir, ancak birbirini dışlayan olaylar doğal olarak ilişkilidir. Örneğin, iki parayı çevirdiğimi varsayalım: Para 1'in kafasını alıp almadığımı Para 2'nin sonucundan etkilenip etkilemeyeceğimi, ancak kendiliğinden Para 1'in üzerine yazı alıp almadığımla bağlantılı olduğunu düşünün! =)
jdmc

1
Bu video burada ve bu diğeri bu kavramları anlamada yararlı olacaktır.
Learn_and_Share

Yanıtlar:


57

There is a difference between

  • independent events: P(AB)=P(A)P(B), i.e. P(AB)=P(A) so knowing one happened gives no information about whether the other happened
  • mutually disjoint events: P(AB)=0, i.e. P(AB)=0 so knowing one happened means the other did not happen

You asked for a picture. This might help:

picture


7
Is there a reason you wrote "almost" in the second bullet point? Is that one of those "possible with probability zero" things? I would think it is by definition impossible (such as the probability of heads and the probability of tails), then why write "almost certainly" rather than "certainly"? I suppose this is the probabilistic interpretation.
gerrit

3
@Barranka I get that, but that doesn't look like what is drawn in the picture on right. The joint probability of a uniformly drawn random number in [0, 1] being both smaller than 0.4 and larger than 0.6 is not only zero, it is also completely impossible. Isn't that what the wide band in the right figure illustrates? Or am I misreading the figure?
gerrit

2
@Barranka I could throw the coin so fast that it escapes earth's gravitational pull. I would venture P(HEADS)=0.499..., P(TAILS)=0.499..., 0<P(LAND ON SIDE)<0.000000000001, and 0<P(ESCAPE VELOCITY)<0.0000000000001. Strictly speaking if the probability of an event is zero, then it can not happen.
emory

4
I'm no expert, but even after your last comment I agree with @gerrit: Heads and Tails are disjoint. It's possible to get Not heads and not tails, but it's impossible to get heads and tails. Thus knowing heads happened means that tails could not possibly have happened - no "almost" about it. I could be wrong on my terminology, but if so please explain patiently as I'm not the only one missing it
Chris H

2
@Braanka Your coin example is a poor one, as presumably landing on a side has non-zero probability, and if you say that it has zero probability, well, now you're pretty much just begging the question.
Acccumulation

13

What I understood from your question, is that you might have confused independent events with disjoint events.

disjoint events: Two events are called disjoint or mutually exclusive if they cannot both happen. For instance, if we roll a die, the outcomes 1 and 2 are disjoint since they cannot both occur. On the other hand, the outcomes 1 and “rolling an odd number” are not disjoint since both occur if the outcome of the roll is a 1. The intersect of such events is always 0.

independent events: Two events are independent if knowing the outcome of one provides no useful information about the outcome of the other. For instance, when we roll two dice, the outcome of each is an independent event – knowing the outcome of one roll does not help determining the outcome of the other. Let's build on that example: We roll two dice, a red and a blue. The probability of getting a 1 on the red is given by P(red = 1) = 1/6, and the probability of getting a 1 on the white is given by P(white = 1) = 1/6. It is possible to get their intersect (i.e. both get 1) simply by multiplying them, since they are independent. P(red = 1) x P(white = 1) = 1/6 x 1/6 = 1/36 != 0. In simple words 1/6 of the time the red die is a 1, and 1/6 of those times the white die is 1. To illustrate:

P(red = 1)xP(white = 1)


2

The confusion of the OP lies on the notions of disjoint events and independent events.

One simple and intuitive description of independence is:

A and B are independent if knowing that A happened gives you no information about whether or not B happened.

Or in other words,

A and B are independent if knowing that A happened does not change the probability that B happened.

If A and B are disjoint then knowing that A happened is a game changer! Now you would be certain that B did not happen! And so they are not independent.

The only way independence and "disjointedness" in this example are the same is when B is the empty set (which has probability 0). In this case A happening does not inform anything on B

No pictures but at least some intuition

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